/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/askhistorians
In slave-owning America, would it be more prestigious for a wealthy family to have Black enslaved or White paid servants?
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An english teacher of mine told me six years ago that in the past (Medieval times) being overweight was considered the beauty standard, since it was a sign you could afford to over eat, among other things. Is this accurate?
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How, why, and when did the transition from subsistence farming to commercial farming occur in England in the Medieval/Modern Era?
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